Easy Questions. 5 points each.Describe an explicit universal hash function family from U=0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7 to 0,1[Hint: you can do this with a set of 4 functions.]Let H=h1, h2, h3, h4 be a universal family of hash functions from U=0,1,...,7 into 0,1. Could it be that some function hi E H maps all of U to 0? Explain. Assume that u > 2.Let H be a universal family of hash functions from U=0,1,...,u-1 into a table of size m. Let S ⊆ U be a set of m elements we wish to hash. Prove that if we choose h
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